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ProfilePosted byOptionsPost Date


JMW Report 31 Dec 2012 12:22

Rosamund. I think it is safe to assume that 'family stories' are not correct here and this was not a suicide. If it had been it would not have had someone as the informant as it would have had to go to the coroner for inquest and no informant would then show as the information is taken from forms from the coroner without an informant being present. The fact there was a post mortem means that the doctor attending was not sure of the cause of death, or the family requested a PM for some reason, or there was no doctor in attendance during the last illness and it had been some while since a doctor had seen the patient.


Rosamund Report 1 Jan 2013 15:30

yes, I've had problems with incorrect family stories before, it just adds to the difficulty and confusion.
thanks everyone for your input.


BrianW Report 1 Jan 2013 19:40

I have a death certificate from 1908 which states:
"Violent haemorrhage from self inflicted wound in throat with a razor.
Suicide whilst of unsound mind"